Zagata wrote:It appears that you have axe to grind with Schmidt.
No, I never met him or had anything to do with him personally. I do dislike his
writings on several counts: his interpretations are often wrong, his English renderings are extremely hard to read (to the point of requiring a second translation from Schmidtese), and his far-reaching theories are based on very little, often just over-interpretation of minor points of grammar or stylistic variation.
I showed you how other astrologers, Ben Dykes being one the most prolific astrological translators, prefer Schmidt's translation over Robbins and others and quote from it. Yet you are still coming up with some counter arguments.
I am not sure what being prolific has to do with anything, but with all due respect for Ben (whom I happen to know slightly), I see no reason to defer to his or anyone's opinion on Greek translations. I'd rather look at the text myself. I generally find arguments from authority to have a pernicious influence on a discussion.
(Just as a marginal note, the translations from the Greek that Ben has published were done by Eduardo Gramaglia, not by himself.)
This is an astrological forum first and foremost, not an academic one.
I think that's a false dichotomy. We are talking about ancient texts and what they mean; that doesn't change depending on whether you call yourself an academic or an astrologer (both of which I am).
Looking at Robbins' translation, there are hardly any footnotes. How is this helpful to an astrologer? Because he did not translate the text for astrologers, nor do the majority of other academics. Yet when I open Pascal Charvet's translation of Ptolemy, it is litered with helpful footnotes - not just about the translation, but he also clarifies certain concepts.
Fair enough: Robbins probably didn't do his translation with practising astrologers in mind. You would like more explanatory notes, and I can sympathize with that (as long as the notes are not misleading). But that is still a different question from whether or not Robbins understood what the text meant and conveyed it in intelligible English, which I think he mostly did.
Schmidt has pointed out where Robbins got it inaccurate and/or wrong and explained why.
But Schmidt's own opinions on such matters were not infrequently wrong, which is precisely my point.
Do we really need to remind ourselves how the academics view Astrology and how biased they are in this?
Just as a matter of interest, how many professional academics working on the history of astrology do you know? I know quite a few, some of whom are astrologers themselves, but even the ones who aren't tend often to be much more sympathetic than you seem to think. It's not all black and white.
I dare you, show me an actual historical horoscope where the astrologer used the term besiegement when benefics are doing it.
There's no need for dares: if there is such an example in a text and people have translated it differently, let's compare those translations.
However, the term blockading does not speak anything to an astrologer. I am not saying the term enclosure meant anything to Western astrologers
No, that's the point: neither is a well-known term. You first claimed that Holden's translation was less accurate (which, as I said, isn't true); now it seems that your objection is that he didn't provide a note. Again, I can sympathize, but it's a different question. Incidentally, as you seem to read German, you should try to get Heilen's translation: approximately 900 pages of it are notes!
And yet in Indian Astrology they have the concept of "hemmed in"
The actual Sanskrit term is kartarī-yoga, 'scissor configuration'. It's more often mentioned with reference to the malefics, but not exclusively so.