Hi Andrew
I?m not suggesting that there is no relevance in the pattern you describe. As I said, I?m open-minded on this and very willing to explore it. It is the argument for human design I find more difficult to accept.
As far as I am aware the accepted line on this is that the exaltations are older than the sign-rulership scheme and considered to be Babylonian in origin. The sign rulership scheme cannot be traced to the Mesopotamian period and is considered a result of Hellenistic development. Therefore I don?t see how the argument can be made that exaltations were designed to make connections to the sign rulership scheme.
Of the two quotes you gave the one from Hand isn?t controversial and doesn?t add much to the discussion, being as the text in question is dated so much later than the period we are considering.
As far as my understanding of the scholarly position it is this: We know that the Mesopotamians were using a 12-sign zodiac from the middle of the 6th century BC to record entries in their astronomical diaries, even if they still referred to the visible constellations to draw their meaning. 747 BC is the earliest date to which observations of the ecliptic can be traced. Even though the oldest text to use the tropical zodiac is dated to 263 BC, it?s considered that there was a lengthy period where the use of the two systems overlapped with each other. (I have wondered whether the development of the zodiac was facilitated as a result of the activity that took place at the Nabu temple and whether that added to its importance ? but this is just a speculative thought).
The earlier quote you gave is much more controversial. Especially the comment:
Some sort of zodiac, possibly sidereal, with 12 equal signs, existed in India in 3000 B.C. A manuscript (in Sanskrit) from that period shows that astrologers then used a zodiac, an equal house system, and aspects counted sign to sign (as in much modern-day Hindu astrology).
It?s a pity that the article which made this comment doesn?t bear the name of the author and is unreferenced. Internet references that are unauthored and unreferenced need to be treated with caution by default because we don?t know what process of research has led to the comment being published.
I?m having a very hard time balancing up the great media attention and scholarly fuss about an artefact dating to around 1600 BC which shows no more than the Sun, Moon and Stars (but which obviously has much deeper meaning); and the claim that a manuscript existed in India in 3000 B.C. showing a 12-sign zodiac, an equal house system, and aspects counted sign to sign! This would be such a giant step forward from recognised astrological development. For example, the opinion of most experts is that the houses were developed at about the same time that the ascendant began to be marked upon charts, which didn?t happen until the commencement of the Christian Era. So if we have this evidence which is 3000 years older, why has everyone been ignoring it?
There is a hugely distorted sense of history attributed to some astrological manuscripts, and many claim to be older than our earliest known cave paintings. One Indian textbook was reputed to be over 2 million years old and although we can see that?s ridiculous it was once taken seriously.
Also, the author of that passage is very confusing in how he mixes up his use of constellations and signs. But the next paragraph reads:
The origin of the modern constellations is somewhat obscure, so it is very difficult to decide whether the constellations were around to lend meaning to the tropical signs at the time that the tropical zodiac was created. Noonan (1976; Journal of Geocosmic Research, Vol. 2, No. 1, pp. 6-7) claims that the first zodiac of the constellations appeared around 500 B.C. The constellations are believed to have been assigned symbols by the Babylonians, but there were originally 36 constellations, and only some of them coincide with the modern sidereal signs. We know that some of the symbols used for the modern signs are recent, because the original symbols were all animals (the word "zodiac," derived from the Greek zo^idiako's, means "circle of animals"). We can be certain that the modern constellations of the zodiac existed by about 30 B.C. because they appear very clearly on the ceiling of the Temple of Hathor at Dendera in Upper Egypt. So was the tropical zodiac in use by then?
It might have been.
So first he is questioning whether the tropical zodiac or a forerunner was used 3000 BC, but he doesn?t even seem sure whether it was around in 30 BC.
I?m always wary of being too sure of anything that relates to such an early period of history but the bottom line is, to create an argument that the exaltations were designed to compliment sign-rulership, you have to demonstrate that the attribution of sign-rulers is at least as old as the exaltation degrees. If exaltations came first, as everyone claims, then they couldn?t have been influenced by sign-rulerships which originate out of geocentric distances.
But like I say, I am not undermining your point about the value of the pattern. I have learnt that with astrology, as in numerology and geometry, we should accept that meanings present themselves in patterns, and that they don?t necessarily depend upon our ability to know how the pattern originated.
Deb