Some thoughts about The Gnostic Paul by Elaine Pagels and other random observations 1/2
Posted: Thu Apr 25, 2024 4:38 am
The Gnostic Paul is an excellent resource for learning about gnostic Christianity, in fact I would say it's one of the most important resources, however it's not an easy text to read as it's definitely an intermediate-advanced level book. There's a couple key considerations to keep in mind when using this book:
1.Elaine Pagels was referencing the original Koine-Greek New Testament, therefore the verses quoted in The Gnostic Paul typically have a slightly different wording than the same verses from the more recent KJV or NIV translations. As you've seen throughout this thread, the esoteric readings of verses are heavily dependent on accurate translations of the original syntax and vocabulary.
-When ranking the various translations from most accurate to least accurate, the original Koine-Greek NT is obviously the most accurate, followed by the KJV and finally the NIV. In spite of the NIV being the least accurate, I often quote passages from it because it's more readable than the KJV. For my own purposes, I typically use the KJV but if I were more knowledgeable in Koine-Greek then I would use that instead. Sometimes though the KJV translation is insufficient or inaccurate and in those cases I use this Greek interlinear bible:
https://scripture4all.org/OnlineInterli ... _Index.htm
2.Sometimes the exegeses appear to be incorrect or strained, but if you dig deeper and consider things like the exegetical history of the passage, possible nuances in the vocabulary and most importantly, read the entire passage (conventionally and esoterically) within the context of the specific chapter or book then the exegeses end up ringing true.
3.This book was written in 1975, long before the age of the internet and easily accessible information, as such it feels anemic in certain areas and doesn't adequately explain things. Granted, Elaine Pagels wrote this book from a strictly scholarly perspective and had certain constraints when writing it. My impression from reading the prologue is that she was primarily focused on compiling all the fragments of the gnostic exegeses of Paul's letters from the corpus of patristic literature with only a secondary focus on robustly reconstructing/explaining them, therefore The Gnostic Paul isn't a fully comprehensive resource, but it was never intended to be in the first place. Instead, this book should be considered as a useful starting point that can help orient us with general Valentinian exegetical guidelines.
-One of my purposes in this thread is to supplement and clarify the various exegeses mentioned in The Gnostic Paul, which is much easier to do in the year 2024 with the abundant information provided through the internet. Ideally I would like to fully exegete and/or contextualize all of Paul's letters (thus completing in spirit what Elaine Pagels originally started), but realistically speaking this is a massive undertaking. Currently I estimate I can decipher approximately 70% of the content in Paul's letters, however I'm dealing with the following obstacles:
In the previous post I provided a detailed exegesis of a passage from 1 Corinthians 2. In this post I want to provide a detailed exegesis from the preceding chapter which will help contextualize and support the original exegesis. Note, there's already an exegesis of this passage in The Gnostic Paul (pages 54-56), however I'm rewriting it with additional information to make its meaning clearer. For your convenience, here's a link to the passage to compare with while reading along: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... ersion=KJV
-Paul claims he's preaching the gospel, but not with wisdom (Sophia) of words (logos), which is a code phrase for the pneumatic/spiritual message of Christianity (recall that speech/logos is associated with spirit in 1 Corinthians 2:4).
-The word originally used for preach in the Koine-Greek version is "euangelizesthai", which doesn't carry the same nuance as "kerygma".
-The word logos in this verse is different than the philosophical logos. I wanted to clarify this since the Valentinians also talk about logos in the platonic sense.
-In the first clause Paul continues referring to the pneumatic Christians, using "the logos of the cross" as a code phrase for the higher pneumatic gospel, saying that it's foolishness to those who are perishing (psychic Christians)**. Although this is a new verse, the logic from the previous one should run together like this:
-Note the juxtaposition of "perishing" and "being saved", both in relation to psychic Christians. While this initially seems contradictory, it's a matter of perspective. From the enlightened pneumatic perspective, psychic Christians are perishing because they don't understand the higher truth of Christianity, however from the limited psychic perspective (which cannot perceive higher truth), they see themselves as being saved, which is relatively true, just not in relation to the pneumatic perspective. Keeping this in mind, observe how the second clause is an inverted mirror image of the first clause:
-Recall the NT is using a caricaturized version of Judaism as a symbolic foil for the spiritual message of Christianity. The general idea being that Jewish law metaphorically represents the strict literalist mindset of "the letter of the law" (visible matter) while Christianity metaphorically represents the relaxed figurative mindset of "the spirit of the law" (invisible forms). I strongly suspect part of the reason the gnostics used the demiurge myth (which they associated with Jewish law, page 55 in The Gnostic Paul) was as a reminder to read references to Jewish law figuratively and not literally. Recall that in Plato's Timaeus, it's the demiurge that's responsible for creating the visible world of matter, which is symbolically consistent with the superficial literalist mindset suggested by "the letter of the law".
-With that in mind, this passage is implying that even the intermediate partially spiritual psychic gospel is better for understanding God (spirit) than the strict matter oriented mindset symbolically represented by Jewish law.
-Note the conventional reading of this passage associates Greeks with foolishness, which is the same word associated with those perishing in 1 Corinthians 1:18, therefore the psychic interpretation of this entire passage is that pagan Greeks are perishing because they think Christianity is foolishness. However, the presence of the word "foolishness" in different verses is a red herring intended to throw off uninitiated readers. What really matters is how "logos" and "kerygma" are used in relation to "foolishness":
pneumatic teaching => 1 Corinthians 1:18, "For the message (logos) of the cross is to them that perish (psychic Christians) foolishness"
-The higher pneumatic message of Christianity is foolishness to psychic Christians
psychic teaching => 1 Corinthians 1:23, "But we preach (kerygma) Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks (pneumatic Christians) foolishness"
-The lower psychic message of Christianity is foolishness to pneumatic Christians.
-The word "called" is actually a code word for psychic Christians. The idea is that psychic Christians are "called" while pneumatic Christians are "chosen". However in this verse it's being used normally since it's used with the qualifier "both", although I do get the impression Paul is foreshadowing his usage of the code word "called" as you'll see in the next verse. In the original Koine-Greek version the word for "called" is right next to "Jews" which suggests a greater affinity between these two words compared to "Greeks". It feels like a kind of grammatical wordplay going on that doesn't really translate into English.
-The psychic interpretation of this verse implies that many Christians come from humble backgrounds, who are literally simple, weak and undignified according to a literal reading of "after the flesh". The pneumatic interpretation understands it as specifically talking about psychic Christians, who are metaphorically simple, weak and undignified in accordance with a metaphorical reading of "after the flesh", only suggesting that their outlook is fleshly/carnal and not their literal physical/material disposition.
-Note that Paul deliberately emphasizes the psychic/pneumatic perspectives by placing the phrase "after the flesh" (psychic orientation) only after "wise men" ("wisdom", that is, pneumatic orientation) and not after the other attributes like "mighty" and "noble".
-Notice how often "world" (a reference to the sensible realm of matter) is used in this passage, which is what psychic Christians understand most easily because of their superficial, carnal orientation. The implication is that the foolish, weak, base and despised things of this world only superficially appear that way to psychic Christians since the "world" only pertains to the false material appearances that can be sensed, but not the deeper, true spiritual reality, which they cannot fully detect.
-In the previous passage Paul was talking about psychic Christians (who are called) which are metaphorically ignorant, weak and undignified because of their carnal/fleshly perspective; in this passage Paul is talking about pneumatic Christians (who are chosen) which superficially appear foolish, weak, base and despised to the limited worldly perspective of psychic Christians, but in true spiritual terms are actually wise, mighty and noble. This relates to what I said earlier in this thread about the relationship between psychic and pneumatic Christians being represented by the idea of the many to the few. In a similar fashion, 1 Corinthians 1:26 implies the many psychic Christians that are spiritually simple, weak and undignified while 1 Corinthians 1:27-28 implies the few pneumatic Christians that are actually spiritually wise, mighty and noble (the code word "chosen" signals the reader to invert the logic of verse 26 so it implies: "the pneumatics are the few wise men after the spirit, few mighty, few noble").
-In verse 28, "things that are not" refers to spirit (which is invisible and unmanifest, hence "it's not"), while "things that are" refers to matter (which is visible and manifest) and can be "brought to nought".
*Ironically if you look at the eight Pauline letters which Elaine Pagels was able to recover gnostic exegeses from (Romans, 1 & 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians and Hebrews) then you'll see that they match the first seven letters of Paul in the NT with the exception of Hebrews. The fact that Elaine Pagels was unable to find any exegeses from the remaining six letters of Paul suggests that the gnostics weren't using these books or that they were intended for a different (psychic) audience, which supports the schema I proposed. Although I want to clarify I only think this schema is generally correct, I suspect there's still a deeper logic to how Paul's letters are arranged.
**In anticipation of hypothetical protests from orthodox Christians that Paul wouldn't be speaking in coded language since it's unethical/lying/deceptive I want to point out again that this is scripturally supported while also expanding on this point:
-This word "apollumenois" also appears in the previous verse I exegeted from 1 Corinthians:
-Note that for the above verses, when reading them conventionally you get the impression they're connected in some way, however each verse seems to be talking about different groups in completely different contexts (2 Corinthians 4:3 is talking about other Christians who misunderstand the gospel, while 1 Corinthians 1:18 is talking about pagans who think Christianity is foolish); it's only when understanding these verses esoterically that they both agree about the group being referred to as well as the context, thus validating the impression of them being connected.
1.Elaine Pagels was referencing the original Koine-Greek New Testament, therefore the verses quoted in The Gnostic Paul typically have a slightly different wording than the same verses from the more recent KJV or NIV translations. As you've seen throughout this thread, the esoteric readings of verses are heavily dependent on accurate translations of the original syntax and vocabulary.
-When ranking the various translations from most accurate to least accurate, the original Koine-Greek NT is obviously the most accurate, followed by the KJV and finally the NIV. In spite of the NIV being the least accurate, I often quote passages from it because it's more readable than the KJV. For my own purposes, I typically use the KJV but if I were more knowledgeable in Koine-Greek then I would use that instead. Sometimes though the KJV translation is insufficient or inaccurate and in those cases I use this Greek interlinear bible:
https://scripture4all.org/OnlineInterli ... _Index.htm
2.Sometimes the exegeses appear to be incorrect or strained, but if you dig deeper and consider things like the exegetical history of the passage, possible nuances in the vocabulary and most importantly, read the entire passage (conventionally and esoterically) within the context of the specific chapter or book then the exegeses end up ringing true.
3.This book was written in 1975, long before the age of the internet and easily accessible information, as such it feels anemic in certain areas and doesn't adequately explain things. Granted, Elaine Pagels wrote this book from a strictly scholarly perspective and had certain constraints when writing it. My impression from reading the prologue is that she was primarily focused on compiling all the fragments of the gnostic exegeses of Paul's letters from the corpus of patristic literature with only a secondary focus on robustly reconstructing/explaining them, therefore The Gnostic Paul isn't a fully comprehensive resource, but it was never intended to be in the first place. Instead, this book should be considered as a useful starting point that can help orient us with general Valentinian exegetical guidelines.
-One of my purposes in this thread is to supplement and clarify the various exegeses mentioned in The Gnostic Paul, which is much easier to do in the year 2024 with the abundant information provided through the internet. Ideally I would like to fully exegete and/or contextualize all of Paul's letters (thus completing in spirit what Elaine Pagels originally started), but realistically speaking this is a massive undertaking. Currently I estimate I can decipher approximately 70% of the content in Paul's letters, however I'm dealing with the following obstacles:
- Does Paul's cipher apply to the letters not mentioned in The Gnostic Paul? My suspicion is that in accordance with the NT categorization schema I previously outlined, the first seven books of Paul (Romans to Colossians) are progressively more and more pneumatic while the last seven books of Paul (1 Thessalonians to Hebrews) are progressively more and more psychic*, thus containing less or even no coded information. This is probably true for the pastoral letters (1 & 2 Timothy and Titus) and Philemon, but isn't the case at all with Hebrews. Regarding 1 & 2 Thessalonians, I've discovered the conventional exegetical history claims thematic links between 1 Corinthians & 1 Thessalonians and 2 Corinthians & 2 Thessalonians. So it's possible the Thessalonians are intended to be psychic counterparts of the (extremely) pneumatic Corinthians, although I don't think this is the only possibility.
- For the Pauline letters we do have exegeses from, are we expected to apply Paul's cipher to the entire letter or only parts of it? I currently suspect the latter. From what I've seen, some passages seem like they should be taken at face value with the caveat they're only addressed towards psychic readers. One thing I've discovered is that the surrounding text of a passage/verse usually provides clues about how it should be read. I frequently ask myself questions like, "what audience is Paul talking to?" or, "what's Paul's overarching purpose here?". A good example of this is with the code words "Jews" and "Gentiles". Sometimes Paul's using these words literally and other times metaphorically. I've observed that when Paul's talking about literal Jews/Gentiles he'll explicitly say so or it will otherwise implied by the context. Here's one example:
On a related note, a general tip for exegeting Paul's letters is being familiar with the platonic form/matter distinction and recognizing the various metaphors used to express it, some examples include: male/female, husband/wife, spirit/flesh etc etc. If you spot these kinds of dichotomies in the text, there's probably a hidden meaning there.Ephesians 2:11
Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
In the previous post I provided a detailed exegesis of a passage from 1 Corinthians 2. In this post I want to provide a detailed exegesis from the preceding chapter which will help contextualize and support the original exegesis. Note, there's already an exegesis of this passage in The Gnostic Paul (pages 54-56), however I'm rewriting it with additional information to make its meaning clearer. For your convenience, here's a link to the passage to compare with while reading along: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... ersion=KJV
Paul's implying he was sent to preach the psychic gospel (and not the pneumatic one) to a psychic audience, suggesting that although the cross of Christ is a single message, it must be conveyed differently towards different audiences to be effective.1 Corinthians 1:17
For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach (euangelizesthai) the gospel: not with wisdom (sophia) of words (logos), lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
-Paul claims he's preaching the gospel, but not with wisdom (Sophia) of words (logos), which is a code phrase for the pneumatic/spiritual message of Christianity (recall that speech/logos is associated with spirit in 1 Corinthians 2:4).
-The word originally used for preach in the Koine-Greek version is "euangelizesthai", which doesn't carry the same nuance as "kerygma".
-The word logos in this verse is different than the philosophical logos. I wanted to clarify this since the Valentinians also talk about logos in the platonic sense.
The KJV misleadingly translates the word "logos" as "preaching". For reference here's the original Koine-Greek version of 1 Corinthians: https://scripture4all.org/OnlineInterli ... f/1co1.pdf1 Corinthians 1:18
For the preaching (logos) of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.
-In the first clause Paul continues referring to the pneumatic Christians, using "the logos of the cross" as a code phrase for the higher pneumatic gospel, saying that it's foolishness to those who are perishing (psychic Christians)**. Although this is a new verse, the logic from the previous one should run together like this:
-In the following clause, Paul signals he's referring to the psychics now by talking as if he were one of them. This can be seen where Paul mentions "us" being saved by the "power" of God (recall that "power" is associated with psychics in 1 Corinthians 1:24).For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach (euangelizesthai) the gospel: not with wisdom (sophia) of words (logos), lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. For the preaching (logos) of the cross is to them that perish (psychic Christians) foolishness
-Note the juxtaposition of "perishing" and "being saved", both in relation to psychic Christians. While this initially seems contradictory, it's a matter of perspective. From the enlightened pneumatic perspective, psychic Christians are perishing because they don't understand the higher truth of Christianity, however from the limited psychic perspective (which cannot perceive higher truth), they see themselves as being saved, which is relatively true, just not in relation to the pneumatic perspective. Keeping this in mind, observe how the second clause is an inverted mirror image of the first clause:
The implication is that psychics can't directly understand the higher spiritual "logos", rather they only understand it as the power of God (which is related to "kerygma").For the logos (associated with spirit) of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.
This passage is talking about the "wisdom of this world", which is actually a reference to Jewish law. This interpretation is reinforced by the phrase "where is the scribe?", which is referring to those who are knowledgable about the law.1 Corinthians 1:19-21
19 For it is written, I will destroy the wisdom of the wise, and will bring to nothing the understanding of the prudent. 20 Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of this world? 21 For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching (kerygmatos) to save them that believe.
-Recall the NT is using a caricaturized version of Judaism as a symbolic foil for the spiritual message of Christianity. The general idea being that Jewish law metaphorically represents the strict literalist mindset of "the letter of the law" (visible matter) while Christianity metaphorically represents the relaxed figurative mindset of "the spirit of the law" (invisible forms). I strongly suspect part of the reason the gnostics used the demiurge myth (which they associated with Jewish law, page 55 in The Gnostic Paul) was as a reminder to read references to Jewish law figuratively and not literally. Recall that in Plato's Timaeus, it's the demiurge that's responsible for creating the visible world of matter, which is symbolically consistent with the superficial literalist mindset suggested by "the letter of the law".
-With that in mind, this passage is implying that even the intermediate partially spiritual psychic gospel is better for understanding God (spirit) than the strict matter oriented mindset symbolically represented by Jewish law.
"Jews" (psychic Christians) understand things literally while "Greeks" (pneumatic Christians) understand things symbolically. Subsequently, the psychic preaching of Christ crucified impedes the limited understanding of psychics who understand it literally, while it seems foolish to pneumatics who understand its true symbolic meaning.1 Corinthians 1:22-23
22 For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom: 23 But we preach (kerygma) Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness
-Note the conventional reading of this passage associates Greeks with foolishness, which is the same word associated with those perishing in 1 Corinthians 1:18, therefore the psychic interpretation of this entire passage is that pagan Greeks are perishing because they think Christianity is foolishness. However, the presence of the word "foolishness" in different verses is a red herring intended to throw off uninitiated readers. What really matters is how "logos" and "kerygma" are used in relation to "foolishness":
pneumatic teaching => 1 Corinthians 1:18, "For the message (logos) of the cross is to them that perish (psychic Christians) foolishness"
-The higher pneumatic message of Christianity is foolishness to psychic Christians
psychic teaching => 1 Corinthians 1:23, "But we preach (kerygma) Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks (pneumatic Christians) foolishness"
-The lower psychic message of Christianity is foolishness to pneumatic Christians.
This verse assigns "Jews" (psychic Christians) to the power of God and "Greeks" (pneumatic Christians) to the wisdom of God, with the following verse reminding the reader these designations are metaphorical and not literal by saying that the foolishness and weakness of God (spirit) is stronger than that of men (matter).1 Corinthians 1:24-25
24 But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God. 25 Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men; and the weakness of God is stronger than men.
-The word "called" is actually a code word for psychic Christians. The idea is that psychic Christians are "called" while pneumatic Christians are "chosen". However in this verse it's being used normally since it's used with the qualifier "both", although I do get the impression Paul is foreshadowing his usage of the code word "called" as you'll see in the next verse. In the original Koine-Greek version the word for "called" is right next to "Jews" which suggests a greater affinity between these two words compared to "Greeks". It feels like a kind of grammatical wordplay going on that doesn't really translate into English.
In this verse the words "calling" and "called" are used, which as noted previously are code words for psychic Christians.1 Corinthians 1:26
For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called:
-The psychic interpretation of this verse implies that many Christians come from humble backgrounds, who are literally simple, weak and undignified according to a literal reading of "after the flesh". The pneumatic interpretation understands it as specifically talking about psychic Christians, who are metaphorically simple, weak and undignified in accordance with a metaphorical reading of "after the flesh", only suggesting that their outlook is fleshly/carnal and not their literal physical/material disposition.
-Note that Paul deliberately emphasizes the psychic/pneumatic perspectives by placing the phrase "after the flesh" (psychic orientation) only after "wise men" ("wisdom", that is, pneumatic orientation) and not after the other attributes like "mighty" and "noble".
This passage uses the code word "chosen" (referencing pneumatic Christians) multiple times, in contrast with the previous passage which used "calling"/"called" (referencing psychic Christians).1 Corinthians 1:27-28
27 But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty; 28 And base things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen, yea, and things which are not, to bring to nought things that are:
-Notice how often "world" (a reference to the sensible realm of matter) is used in this passage, which is what psychic Christians understand most easily because of their superficial, carnal orientation. The implication is that the foolish, weak, base and despised things of this world only superficially appear that way to psychic Christians since the "world" only pertains to the false material appearances that can be sensed, but not the deeper, true spiritual reality, which they cannot fully detect.
-In the previous passage Paul was talking about psychic Christians (who are called) which are metaphorically ignorant, weak and undignified because of their carnal/fleshly perspective; in this passage Paul is talking about pneumatic Christians (who are chosen) which superficially appear foolish, weak, base and despised to the limited worldly perspective of psychic Christians, but in true spiritual terms are actually wise, mighty and noble. This relates to what I said earlier in this thread about the relationship between psychic and pneumatic Christians being represented by the idea of the many to the few. In a similar fashion, 1 Corinthians 1:26 implies the many psychic Christians that are spiritually simple, weak and undignified while 1 Corinthians 1:27-28 implies the few pneumatic Christians that are actually spiritually wise, mighty and noble (the code word "chosen" signals the reader to invert the logic of verse 26 so it implies: "the pneumatics are the few wise men after the spirit, few mighty, few noble").
-In verse 28, "things that are not" refers to spirit (which is invisible and unmanifest, hence "it's not"), while "things that are" refers to matter (which is visible and manifest) and can be "brought to nought".
This suggests those who perceive according to the flesh cannot understand God who is spirit.1 Corinthians 1:29
That no flesh should glory in his presence.
*Ironically if you look at the eight Pauline letters which Elaine Pagels was able to recover gnostic exegeses from (Romans, 1 & 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians and Hebrews) then you'll see that they match the first seven letters of Paul in the NT with the exception of Hebrews. The fact that Elaine Pagels was unable to find any exegeses from the remaining six letters of Paul suggests that the gnostics weren't using these books or that they were intended for a different (psychic) audience, which supports the schema I proposed. Although I want to clarify I only think this schema is generally correct, I suspect there's still a deeper logic to how Paul's letters are arranged.
**In anticipation of hypothetical protests from orthodox Christians that Paul wouldn't be speaking in coded language since it's unethical/lying/deceptive I want to point out again that this is scripturally supported while also expanding on this point:
What's a parable? It's a hidden teaching, which is no different than what Paul is doing. There is however one passage in 2 Corinthians which appears to contradict the idea of Paul speaking in code, but it itself is classic cleverly worded Pauline doublespeak:Luke 8:9-10
9His disciples asked him what this parable meant. 10He said, “The knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of God has been given to you, but to others I speak in parables, so that,
“ ‘though seeing, they may not see;
though hearing, they may not understand.’
Paul is a pneumatic teacher which is related to the concept of spirit/form. Platonically speaking, spirit/form is considered as perfect, eternal and "true", meanwhile matter is considered as imperfect, temporary and "false". Spirit is intrinsically hidden and true while matter intrinsically hides things and is false. Therefore, spirit and matter can both be related to "hiddenness", but in different ways. This is the same concept mentioned in Luke 8:10:2 Corinthians 4:2-3
2 But have renounced the hidden things of dishonesty, not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God. 3 But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost:
Therefore although 2 Corinthians 4:2 superficially contradicts the idea of Paul using coded language to teach a spiritual message, Paul isn't talking about literal dishonesty, rather Paul is using dishonesty in a philosophical/platonic sense to refer to a psychic material oriented mindset. We know that Paul is thinking along these terms because in the very last sentence he intentionally juxtaposes this phrase by talking about "truth" and "the sight of God", which is an indirect metaphor for light (in the sense that light is necessary for sight). Light of course is associated with the quality of spirit, as is God. Thus Paul is technically telling the truth here since he's the only one teaching the true, "honest", spiritual/pneumatic message of Christianity. That being said, the primary purpose of this verse is to make an indirect tongue in cheek reference to psychic Christians, especially with the phrase "nor handling the word of God deceitfully" which is figuratively describing their tendency to interpret scripture literally instead of allegorically. The following verse confirms this is the correct interpretation:‘though seeing, they may not see;
though hearing, they may not understand.’
Note that "our gospel" refers to the special pneumatic gospel.2 Corinthians 4:3
But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost (apollumenois):
-This word "apollumenois" also appears in the previous verse I exegeted from 1 Corinthians:
In both verses the lost/perishing (apollumenois) is referring to those unable to understand the higher pneumatic gospel, that is, the psychic Christians.1 Corinthians 1:18
For the preaching (logos) of the cross is to them that perish (apollumenois) foolishness...
-Note that for the above verses, when reading them conventionally you get the impression they're connected in some way, however each verse seems to be talking about different groups in completely different contexts (2 Corinthians 4:3 is talking about other Christians who misunderstand the gospel, while 1 Corinthians 1:18 is talking about pagans who think Christianity is foolish); it's only when understanding these verses esoterically that they both agree about the group being referred to as well as the context, thus validating the impression of them being connected.