Mark wrote:I don?t think so but I understand why a siderealist like yourself might look at it differently.
And I quite understand why a tropicalist like yourself might like to make as much of astrology's history as possible look tropical. However, let's not play the motive game.
My point is that these astrologers perceived the fixed point in their zodiac as the equinox not a fixed star.
As long as they did not know about or understand precession, this may have been (and, I believe, probably was) entirely a matter of practical convenience. The point is that there was something else that defined the beginning of the signs. That something was the fixed constellations (all made up of stars!), whether or not a particular fiducial star was named.
Later astrologers like Ptolemy just provided greater astronomical sophistication to allow the exact calculation of the equinox point.
I'm not sure what you mean by this. Saying that the sign Aries begins at the equinox point is a stipulative definition. It is neither more nor less sophisticated than saying that Aries begins 8 degrees prior to the equinox point; it is just different.
If the equinoxes and solstices had been perceived as the real defining points?
They were amongst most Greek astronomers. Did you see my quote from Hipparchus above? Like it or not the majority of Greek astronomers DID use 0 Aries (tropical) as the starting point of their zodiac.
And did you see me referring to the same fact earlier in this thread? As I said there, astronomers and astrologers seem generally not to have been the same people, or to have shared the same objectives. Hipparchus and Geminus are only tangentially relevant to Greek astrology as such.
The Greek astrologers seem to have adopted these points (especially 8 Aries) as where the equinox lay directly from Babylonian sources which were already outdated due to precession.
They were; but then, as you say yourself, most astrologers didn't know about precession.
As I see it they were calculating a zodiac from what they perceived as the equinox point. It just didn?t coincide with the actual one because their astronomical understanding of where it lay was less advanced.
I have read this several times over, but I admit I cannot grasp your reasoning. 'More or less advanced' doesn't enter into it. If someone measures the equinox as falling 15? or 10? or 8? into the sign Aries, then there must be a starting point to Aries which is not dependent on the equinox. You can't measure something without reference points. And the only possible reference points in this case are the fixed stars (one or more). A zodiac which uses the fixed stars as reference points is a sidereal zodiac. What else could it be?
Regarding Indian astrology:
However, I don?t see what possible relevance this has to a discussion of ancient astrology. After all these ancient astrologers were on the whole completely unaware of precession so the whole analogy is irrelevant.
I don't think it is. The point is that you don't need a named fiducial star in order to have a sidereal zodiac. It is enough that the zodiac remain fixed in relation to the constellations. (In fact, the Sanskrit word used ? niraya?a ? is not strictly related to the stars. It means 'unprecessed'.)
Plus they had no fiducial star like the Indians. If you have evidence to the contrary please do post it....
You are the one insisting on named fiducial stars, not I.
I find your lassez faire approach to the term difficult to fathom. You seem content to exchange the standard definition of the word for one based on a fixed zodiac derived from the assumed equinox point. This seems very different from a sidereal zodiac in most people's use of the word.
I think it is unfortunate that such lax use of the term 'sidereal' is widespread in contemporary academic circles too.
On the contrary, I think that most people who use the phrase 'sidereal zodiac' at all (a minuscule fraction of humanity!) use it in precisely the same sense that I and other academics do, namely, a zodiac fixed in relation to the stars/constellations. It seems perfectly natural and uncontroversial to me. If it doesn't to you, then we just feel differently on a point of semantics. However, it will be easier to communicate if we all stick to established usage.