Posted: Sat Aug 05, 2017 5:58 pm
Right, what I meant was it would be worthwhile to study what has been written on the subject by academics precisely because like you they have also studied the subject, but unlike you they have systematically put forth that study in a way that allows for peer review and for others to critically examine the work - there would be references, relations to other work done by other academics and so on and it allows a reader to actually independently take that work and evaluate it in relation to the rest of the work out there. It's hard to do that with something like this because you don't really draw many references but make many conclusions without expanding or letting us go through your rationale. That's all I meant. I agree with Konrad in a way who says if this is just your opinions then I guess nobody can really say much about that. But because this is a summary or rendition of something historical it just helps the audience to refer to why you're saying what you're saying. When you said that "some people" say that the sidereal zodiac was used in Babylon it felt a little bit odd to me, because it connoted a sense that this is widely disputed with some people saying this and some people saying that when in fact it's fairly widely understood that the zodiac was at least originally measured sidereally.Vic DiCara wrote: That I can't tell you which academics believe this or that doesn't mean I have not done research.
Right, but maybe I confused the premise of your research here because it seemed to me that you were going much further than saying this and suggesting instead that a tropical reckoning was used for the zodiac signs much earlier than I undersatsnd we can say for any surety. One of the problems we have with these ancient sources from Babylon is that we are left inferring much from what is there because we don't really have much in the way of explanation.But what I find is definition of tropical measurements in ancient texts, alongside definitions of sidereal measurements.
So we do have evidence of a solar year with there appearing to be the equinoxes and solstices in the centre of the sign - the question is now more about whether this was, say, used primarily agriculturally for example, or chiefly as a prognostication or an astrological tool? What about the asterisms? What about after the developement of an equal 12 sign zodiac? Further complicating the problem is that we cannot tell whether they knew about precession so we have to face three possibilities:
A) They were using sidereal measurements to measure tropical effects
B) They were noting the equinoxes and solstices for some calendrical purpose outside of a stellar astrological foundation
C) Some combination of the above
The problem is really that we don't know and this is the crux of the debate. As a tropical astrology the tropical symbolism and approach makes sense to me for a variety of reasons and the sidereal measurements are therefore a matter of mnemonic or measuring convenience because they were chiefly measuring something of tropical significance whilst I still believe that they didn't fully differentiate them because they didn't know of precession so threw in a whole host of sidereal considerations in one melting pot. Maybe this is what you're saying too. Sidereal astrologers will of course disagree, and the point is that ultimately right now each side sees enough of evidence to find their position at the very least compelling.
But to return to my earlier point about references and citing academia, a part of the problem is making a bigger conclusion than I think we can say for sure. It's one thing to say that they measured things of a tropical nature and they did so siderally but it's another thing to imagine that the 12 fold zodiac was only momentarily sidereal and then was basically tropical - not only does it contradict the idea you laid before of a time period in which the tropical zodiac was aligned to the centre of the months (which seems to be earlier than the 12 equal sidereal signs) but I really personally do not feel we can make that conclusion based on the evidence we have. But instead you allude to some additional evidence that I must not be grasping and unfortuantely you don't provide that evdience
What do you have in mind?There is evidence of the Babylonians and others using a 12-fold zodiac in sidereal context during a relatively short transition period where the focus shifted from the older systems based on multifold sidereal divisions to the newer systems based on the 12-fold tropical system
Why? Even by your own logic this should be a natural conclusion. If you recognise that tthe babylonians had a calendrical system in which the equnoxes and solstices were in the middle of the signs and then by the time of the records we have more surety of it was at 10? sidereal Aries and later 5 and so on, it's surely evident that by Hipparchus it becomes obvious that one might recognise this drift in equinox against the sidereal point and want to affix it for that reason. Why else call it Aries? By Geminos we see clear evidence (2 centuries before Ptolemy but after Hipparchus) that the Greeks employed a system of tropical measurement which explicitly affixed the zodaic to 0 Aries but again explicitly highlight this as being different to the system of the Babylonians who place the equinox in the first few degrees of Aries. Surely it is precisely because of a recognition of apparent sidereal phenomena (keep in mind we have to imagine at this time that the stars themselves were the things coming out of synch, not the equinox).There I disagree.
Surely its the very names and divisions of constellations into an equal 12 fold system to begin with is the biggest hand smudge (much less finger print) of the sidereal foundation at the heart of at least its mnemonic attributions, with very few exceptions. The sky was envisioned sidereally at a time when precession was not understood, or at least we have no evidence of their understanding it. So the constellations are the thing which derive our divisions into an equal named zodiac we more or less keep today. We also have attributions in the earliest hellenistic authors to parts of this or that sign which have various qualities because of either how the constelaltions of the same name appear (whether this or that sign rises head first and so on) as well as being stormy or cloudy or dim or so on - clearly references to an observational system which therefore can only be sidereal.I don't see those fingerprints, what are they?
I have to disagree with you. Rulerships appear not to have a huge amount to do with a tropical division explicitly. The orbital periods of the planets in relation to a geocentric position give rise to the domicile rulership - the problem is that despite what Ptolemy would have us believe, the logic for explicitly associating them with the tropical signs may not make much sense. By his logic Gemini ought to be ruled by the Moon and Leo the sun. It isn't the case. Instead what we could notice is that at some we have the Thema Mundi in which the horoscope of the world is imagind and it has Cancer rising.What I see are rulerships, elements, modes and even the sizes and number of the divisions having nothing to do with stars and everything to do with the sun's relation to the equator (sometimes also the Moon's relation to the sun, in the case of the number and size).
Now it's perfectly sound to imagine that for whatever reason Cancer rises (we cannot jump to any conclusions on that), once we have this we can now place the rulerships spreading outward from here such that the first and second house contain the luminaries. LIkewise for the cardinal points - in this system the equal/whole sign associations of the angles are the points of turning (the cardinal points) which they would be astronomically.
Now the next problem is the issue of the triplicities which we have at least some evidence for in the Babylonian tradition. For all we know these are merely geometric distinctions but I don't see anything particularly tropical in symbolism here so I'd love to known what you have in mind here.
But having nothing to do with the stars doesn't suddenly mean it has something to do with a tropical zodiac!? The best we can say is that a synodic period of the moon more closely matches 12 signs per year than a sidereal measurement. But is this the same as imagining that the 12 months per year match the zodiac - in my opinion no, because from one year to another whilst there will be more or less 12, they will not each subsequent year "start" from the same point on the ecliptic.It has nothing to do with stars, and the year is best measured by the length of shadow (tropical).
But again, this doesn't mean it points to a tropical zodiac as you yourself defined it. It just means they recognise months for example or something for agricultural or seasonal reasons. I'm not saying they *didn't* use it astrologically but all our evidence shows the zodiac emerging in the Mesopotamian region - we would have to rewrite history as instead saying that the tropical zodiac emerged in India and moved west to Mesopotamia, but we not only have no evidence of this, we have evidence to the contrary.The fact that it is 12-fold (not 18, 28 or 36) is what betrays it as luni-solar and not stellar.
I hope you take my points here in the spirit of wanting to improve better communication and discussion of the zodiacs - as I mentioned on my thread in response to Ken Bowser on the sidereal zodiac, there's been ultimately too much of what I at least see as confusion or misinformation on the issue of the zodiacs. I'm a tropical astrologer and am happy to have anyone promote a tropical approach, but I think we need to keep the reality of the sidereal measurements in context and not overstate the case for tropical.