steven wrote:I understand what you mean, although I'm not quite sure astrology would not have been accepted without Ptolemy. What made astrology acceptable was the popularity of Aristotle and his "physics" are quite evident in not only Ptolemy, but many of the medieval Arabic sources such as Al-Kindi. Of course we'll never know will we

Your point is duly taken.
It probably then must have been a combination of Ptolemy and other sources as the material translated by Hugo. Interesting to see how astrology was spread over that whole part of the world of India to Spain.
Dr. Michio Yano in Japan.
Do you happen to know if astrology is practised a lot in Japan? I just wonder about that.
Osthanes wrote:steven wrote:What I'd like to see translated of course is the Liber Aristotle that Pingree refers to! Actually in his article Pingree refers to several manuscripts which he footnotes that he was going to publish. I wonder if he did before his passed.
In this case, yes. It is
The Liber Aristotilis of Hugo of Santalla, published by the Warburg Institute in 1997. It contains an edition of the Latin text (no translation) and a very detailed commentary about its sources (mainly Dorotheus) and occasionally cross-references from Sahl's natal work.
I don't have time for a closer look but on Jstor I found two review articles:
Review: [untitled]
Author(s): Marwan Rashed
Reviewed work(s): The Liber Aristotilis of Hugo of Santalla by Charles Burnett; David Pingree
Source: Isis, Vol. 90, No. 3 (Sep., 1999), pp. 590-591
Published by: The University of Chicago Press on behalf of The History of Science Society
Stable URL:
http://www.jstor.org/stable/237261
&
Review: [untitled]
Author(s): Lodi Nauta
Reviewed work(s): The "Liber Aristotilis" of Hugo of Santalla by Hugo of Santalla; Charles Burnett; David Pingree
Source: Speculum, Vol. 76, No. 2 (Apr., 2001), pp. 474-475
Published by: Medieval Academy of America
Stable URL:
http://www.jstor.org/stable/2903497
Martin Gansten wrote:carriere.francois wrote:I have a question (I have not found an answer for). Since the Hellenistic zodiac is know to begin with an equinox around 8th or 12th degree, do the bounds and decans begin with the zero degree Aries? Which would mean that they should be adjusted in our modern zodiac, isn't it?...
Yes, the Hellenistic authors who placed the equinox in 8?--12? Aries (or, in other words, placed 0? Aries 8?--12? before the equinox) still reckoned the terms (bounds) from 0? Aries, and not from the equinox.
Realizing that this adjustment of 0? Aries dates of a couple of centuries before, it seems that those astrologers who did this didn't check the positions by observations but rather relied on the tradition of the sources that mention this adjustment.