Hello
I'm sorry I didn't reply sooner, for some reason the notices of replies all went into my spam box this time. also sorry this is so long, just ignore if you've had enough. I probably won't have time to respond to any comments for a while, all this takes up so much time, so I won't be bothering you!
Also sorry that I seem to have caused so much confusion and a degree of irritation. This is partly my fault for allowing myself to be sidetracked into discussions of sidereal v. tropical, historical evidence and lack of it, etc. What is frustrating is that we are so close to understanding each other, I get the impression that Paul in particular rebuts my points or questions the validity of my questions by arguing precisely the points I'm trying to make, but expressed differently.
But I don't think my initial question, to which I kept trying to return, was really so difficult to understand: I was asking about the relationship of the classical rulership scheme to the tropical year, i.e. to the solstice/equinox (antiscial/contra-antiscial) axis), not about names of constellations which have been applied to the 30? sections of the ecliptic.
Michael understood this immediately:
The problem of the divergence between what we might call the "seasonal zodiac" (the zodiac organized around the cardinal cross as the onset of the four seasons) and the domicile scheme (the zodiac organized around the fixed cross) is an interesting one.
But Michael's explanation of the equivalent but separate symmetries of the the antiscia on the one hand, and the rulership scheme on the other, I think just begs the question, once more?: I asked if anyone, apart from Fagan, had floated the idea that they could logically be expected to match, to be organised around the same axis.
It turns out Ptolemy did, unambiguously if only implicitly, in the chapter on the "Houses of the Planets"?:
of the twelve signs?the most northern, which are closer than the others to our zenith and therefore most productive of heat and of warmth are Cancer and Leo
(the zenith of the annual cycle, the most northern point, is of course what is conventionally called the tropic of Capricorn, the "most northern part" being the segments to each side of it, before and after). If one of you who knows Ptolemy well had pointed this chapter out, adding perhaps that "it must be a mistake or an oversight, as elsewhere he is clear that the VP is at 0? Aries, and in various places [e.g. chapter on triplicities] it's clear that he considers Aries to be ruled by Mars, etc", I'd have had my answer straight away: end of story.)
Mark quoted the Almageset and wrote
Ptolemy establishes two things here: that that for the purpose of expressing longitudes the ecliptic is considered as divided into twelve equal arcs of 30? named after the zodiacal constellations, with the degrees counted eastwards, and that these arcs (i.e. zodiacal signs, as distinct from constellations) are fixed such that Aries 0? is the vernal equinoctial point. Thus the frame of reference is strictly tropical.
Yes, I wasn't questioning that, it's very difficult
not to confuse the name with the thing it designates, so I'm sorry if I gave the impression that I was doing that, as I feel some of you have been. I've tried to make it clear that I was asking (myself, first, but you also) a question not about constellation-derived sign-names, but about the relation between the classical rulership scheme and the annual tropical cycle, as structured by the solstices and equinoxes.
Paul wrote:
I don't think we should necessarily look for causal reasons to explain our astrology (not arguing that you say this) but instead we look for symbolic ones, which could be equally if not more important [...]we could turn this on its head and say that what's not symbolically appropriate is the assignation of planetary rulership, rather than the first sign of the zodiac
. Yes, that's exactly what I mean, and why I raised this issue, and why I hadn't planned to get sidetracked into historical discussion, sidereal v. tropical etc. As Michael says, "Analogy is the foundation of all the occult sciences." This is noticeably true for astrology, surely. I feel that the conventional rulership scheme (in terms of its solar and lunar halves) is not symbolically appropriate in terms of its placement with regard to the solstice axis.
Paul quotes my suggested "common sense" test?: me
try explaining the rulership arrangement to any non-astrology-savvy person (without mentioning sign names, as they'll have heard of those) ; then separately explain the equinoxes and solstices ; then ask them where they would put the latter in the rulership pattern ? It won't be be between Pisces and Aries, I'll bet, more likely between Aries and Taurus.
Paul?:
isn't it a bit leading to talk about equinoxes and solstices and then introduce the rulership scheme? Aren't we leading them to a conclusion? After all, maybe the rulership has nothing to do with the equinox and solstice.
Yes, exactly, maybe it doesn't, but I think it would be more symbolically appropriate if it did. And so does Ptolemy, it seems, at least in passing, in the Chapter on Houses of Planets (when he "forgets" about the constellation names associated with those houses). He does relate them to the solstice, he does seem to think or let slip or at least imply that they "should" have something to do with each other (because they
do match up, in this passage.
I feel there's an analogy between the mirror pattern of the antiscia and the mirror pattern of the rulerships scheme, if you don't see an analogy there, fair enough, analogy is rather subjective by nature. But I agree with Michael that "analogy is the foundation of all the occult sciences".
Paul?:
I always read Ptolemy as making an explanation that more or less makes sense to him - not necessarily that this explanation was an accurate description of its development.?
Keep in mind things like antiscia is not based on the zodiac per se, but rather based on declination of the sun, and it's only because so too is the tropical zodiac based on this, that we can make these sign based antiscia matches.
That's what I'm talking about ? what seems to me to make sense, not what is necessarily exactly what happened historically, and right, we both accept that sign-based anticiscia matches are valid, it's just that I don't see a sign-based match between e.g. Gemini and Cancer, but I do between Cancer and Leo, Capricorn and Aquarius etc.
Paul?:
Now we can't simply move this around to suit ourselves, this is an actual astronomical property that we measure - the sun's declination. The only way it would make sense to move to 30? is if the solstice and equinox points are at 30?, because in effect this is what we're measuring here.
Right, but I'm not suggesting we move the solstice points. We could move the rulership scheme to align the two symmettries, as Ptolemy implies in the passage quoted. The rulership scheme is
not an actual astronomical property, it's a symbolic arrangement superimposed on an astronomical arrangement.
Concerning the the "correcting of the error" to line the VP up with 0? Aries (Deborah's expression, in "The Classical Basis of Antiscia"), Paul asks what I mean when I wrote
if the error had "accumulated" to 15? and later 8 and 5 Aries, shouldn't we remove the accumulation, rather than adding more, in order to correct it?
and Paul replied
What do you mean? Again, remember that the antiscia points are essentially mirror images along the solstice axis.
. It's really just a question of Deborah's choice of "accumulated", but I meant simply that if an error "accumulates" from 15 to 8 to 5, then you are accumulating more error if you move it 0. You could maybe take it back (unaccumulate it) to 15, or if you want to disconnect from the constellations, as Ptolemy does, and fix it at 0?, you could choose 0? of any sign that seems symbolically appropriate, within the tropical cycle. The fact that horoscopic astrology as such was probably not around when the VP was at 0? Taurus sidereally, should not matter, from a tropical point of view, since the constellation-names are conventions (I do recognise of course that through use by tropical astrologers, the name "Aries" will have acquired meaning, and its own traditional associations).
Anyway, if anyone should happen to want to experiment (you never know...) with the rulership arrangement (in relation to the solstice axis) proposed (perhaps mistakenly) by Ptolemy in The Houses of the Planets, it's a bit awkward to try to think "Taurus" or "house of Venus" when you see the word "Aries" or its glyph.
If you have Delphic Oracle, Curtis has kindly provided an offset tool?: you simply put "30" in the offset box in the options tab, and all chart factors are shifted forward 30?. You can also do it with the Indian freeware Jagannatha Hora, but you can only have South Indian square charts (where the signs are fixed and the Asc moves around clockwise), or North Indian (square like medieval charts, but withe Asc at the top). You just choose "none/tropical" in preferences> ayanamsa, and "minus 30" in offset from that ayanamsa (which again, will move all chart factors 30? forward, since the "ayanamsa" will be 30? les than otherwise).
Michael asked me for the references for the chakra scheme in David Frawley and Ray Grasse.
In Frawley, it's in
The Astrology of the Seers, pp. 229-233, chapter on "yogic astrology". He also proposes a very interesting "chakra/yogic" explanation for the exaltation scheme, which is the best hypothesis I've encountered as to the logic of this. He gets in a mess, in my opinion, when he tries to extend the chakra scheme to the houses, because he associates the first house with Aries (as "the first sign", even sidereally, and the whole arrangement loses its symmetry ? back to my original question!)
Although Frawley's book is about sidereal astrology, there's no reason why the scheme shouldn't be applied tropically, as Ray Grasse does in
The Waking Dream, Ch 10 (and elsewhere). Grasse also describes the scheme on his site, but (unfortunately?) tries to extend it to include Uranus, Neptune and Pluto, corresponding to other minor chakras. He also divides the "third eye" chakra (ajna) into chandra and ajna, its lunar and solar aspects.
http://innerself.com/content/personal/i ... akras.html
Th?r?se ? you're quite right that Frawley was not really a "disciple" of Yukteswar, I remembered wrongly. He credits Yukteswar as his inspiration for astrology, expresses his preference for the ayanamsa and "system" of Yukteswar as set out in
The Holy Science, and draws heavily on him in his discussion of the cycle of world-ages (yuga).
The ayurvedic element/chakra scheme you describe uses just the four elements, and ascribes Mercury to earth, as you point out (rather counter-intuitive to most of us). The more commonly encountered scheme in the West at least, which Frawley and Grasse describe, uses the 5 elements of samkhya
darsana (philosophical point of view), which underlies classical yoga, and includes the 5th element "ether" or space (akasha), which is ascribed to Gemini, Virgo and Mercury, with the different aspects of "mindstuff" ascribed to Cancer and Leo / Sun and Moon.
Waybread, I agree that if you think the the most useful analogy to draw with the rulership scheme is not with the cycle of the Sun's maximum and minimum light, but with the temperature cycle in the Egyptian desert, then yes, Leo may well be better started 30? after the summer solstice, as it is conventionally. But even in Egypt the Sun is higher, and burns you more quickly, at the summer solstice than five or six weeks later.
Thanks again for all you comments, they've helped me to clarify my thoughts on this question.
Graham