Posted: Sat Mar 07, 2009 7:56 pm
Frankly, I can't say for sure whether Ptolemy does define this, and if so, where; and I haven't the time to do the detective work at present. But as far as I know (and I am open to correction from those who know this material better -- Chris Brennan?), Hellenistic authors always used the 1? = 1 year formula. We don't always bother to define concepts which we know to be understood and agreed upon by our readers.Graham Fox wrote:I know there's no hard evidence that 1/365.24th of a year (or the true daily equivalent ) was used until later, but does Ptolemy specify elsewhere that he really means 1/360th of the earth's daily rotation = 1 solar year? Or did someone else specify it before Prolemy?
Well, why 12 signs? Astrology has always been prone to this 'idealizing' tendency, perhaps because it is rooted in a view of the world where the Ideal is also the Real. (Although I feel I should add that I do not believe we are justified in attempting to extract a full-blown metaphysical system from the early astrological texts.)If not, how does Robbins know Ptolemy's thinking of the "ideal" figure of 360? This in effect means we're saying that the full circle = 360 years. Why 360?