Hi Garry,
Having said this, the commentaries apparently identify the 5 (or astrologers who predicted the Buddha's future as having been court astrologers. Whilst I wouldn't want to take this as definitive it seems to point to the existence of some high-ranking positions for astrologers. I ought to mention the court astrologer business in the paper. The astrologers were also the Buddha's first students, I definitely should mention that.
I think what you say here makes sense. The position of astrologer, and other diviners for that matter, were highly favoured positions in most cultures at that time. Certainly in China it was the court astrologers who were the only ones allowed to practise. And, as I mentioned, the position of augur in the Roman Senate, Cicero being one of the most well known, was a highly respected position.
It is interesting that you mention astrologers as being the Buddha's first students.
I don't remember the bit you mention where Pingree talks about Buddhism spreading forms of astrology, what page is that on? I imagine what he has in mind would be that Buddhism spread around a lot, and that astrology piggy-backed this transmission of ideas. Rather than the astrology actually being in the Buddhism, if you see what i mean.
When I wrote my post I wasn't really suggesting that this astrology was part of Buddhist tradition or the philosophy of Buddhism. As I said, I know almost nothing about it. However, having another read of the article, I am not so sure that Buddhists had little influence. On page 240, Pingree mentions that Buddhists introduced naksatra astrology into Iran and Central Asia. So, if this was true, they certainly practised it extensively. He says that this is a previously mentioned fact but I am not sure whether he means that he has mentioned it elsewhere in the article or at another time. I could not find where he mentions it for the first time. On the following page, he is talking about naksatra astrology and says that to reach these places (Iran and Central Asia) the texts
most probably passed through Buddhist communities in the eastern provinces of the Sasanian Empire; and one finds the remains of this Buddhist influence in the second chapter of the Bundahishn, where the twenty-eight naksatras are listed with Persian names.
So, he seems to be saying that Buddhists did have some sort of astrological influence although how much is hard to gauge. According to one thing I read, the word naksatra is originally Tibetan.
I just read another article by Pingree
'Classical and Byzantine Astrology in Sassanian Persia.' It is a very interesting article but he does not mention Buddhism at all. I enjoy Pingree's works and he has done some fascinating studies but I think that he, like so many other scholars, exagerates the influence of the Greeks in every aspect of history. As Westerners we are conditioned to think that we owe our entire heritage to the Greeks when I do not think this is true. What is true is that they had an enormous impact on history but not an exclusive one. An example of this can be seen in the arguments about the origins of Indian astrology. There are two extremes, i.e. one side arguing that all Indian astrology came from the Greeks, while the other side argues that none of it did. The truth is somewhere in the middle. I believe that Pingree does recognise this but he still sees the Greeks as the major influence. I seem to recall Rob Hand commenting on Pingree's study on the Yavanajataka, where he compared the Greek influence with this Hindu astrology that even he (David Pingree) had to admit that there are many differences. However, as Hand pointed out, differences do not preclude the same origin.
I would just like to make a quick point about one of the quotes from Iamblichus that you mentioned. Iamblichus gives me a headache at times but then it could be due to the fact that the only translation I have is that of Thomas Taylor who is notoriously difficult. But where would we be without him? He was the first person to translate the complete works of Plato and Aristotle into English in the eighteenth century.
Whenever it is necessary for the soul to exercise virtue, and ignorance of the future contributes to this, the Gods conceal the things that will happen in order to make the soul better.
You ask why they might not also use misdirection or even misinformation. I think there is a very big difference between withholding information and misguiding someone. We can perhaps see examples of this in the sense of horary when charts are unable to be read due to such things as an early ascendant or voc Moon, etc. The information will not be incorrect or misleading, it will simply not be forthcoming for some reason. In contemporary astrology we often view this in more of a technical fashion. That is, we see the chart as technically unable to be read rather than seeing it as a divinatory response. Albertus Magnus said something quite similar about God withholding information.
When the signifiers are equal in good fortune and evil, the counsel of the profession of the stars is to abandon the interrogation since God wished to keep it hidden from us.
Which is almost identical to something Lilly says about waiting for a better time. Further to what you quoted, Iamblichus goes on to say that when ignorance of the future does not contribute to virtue then foreknowledge will be forthcoming.
But when the ignorance of what is future does not at all contribute to this, and foreknowledge is advantageous to souls for the sake fo their salvation and reascent [to divinity], then the gods insert the foreknowledge which pertains to divination in the penetralia of the essences of souls.
What I read from this is that there are only certain occasions when answers of a divinatory nature are not forthcoming and that it is because it is better for the soul's development if the answer is not available at that point in time. I cannot see that there would be any occasion where answers are deliberately misleading. Certainly there are plenty of cases when the diviners themselves were deliberately misleading for various reasons, such as political expediency. This happened often in the times of the Roman Republic. And, of course, if your suggestion that it may be possible that they would use misdirection, this raises the very interesting issue of differentiating when such a thing may be virtuous and when it would be less than honourable. You mentioned the story of the two monks meditating when two yakkhas passed by, the point being that we are continually interacting with beings from other worlds and that the quality of the interactions is not always benevolent. So how might one differentiate between the genuine divinatory messages and ones that are not so divine if it is possible that divine messages can be misleading 'for our own good?' Some would argue (you mention Augustine) that none of it is to be trusted. I am just thinking out loud here and my questioning is mostly rhetorical but it is interesting to contemplate. I agree that it may be a mistake to expect divinatory information to be simply factual and that astrology readings should deliver straightforward and accurate information. This is why I like the rich symbolism of horary astrology.
As for the Maggie idea, I look forward to the update and will wait until then to comment.
