They were Persians -- hardly 'western' in any maningful sense of the word, except if we take it to mean 'non-Indian'.
What I had in mind is that they are in the background of the Western tradition. Western astrology can include them in its development.
Muhammad ibn Ahmad al-Biruni seems like a decidedly Arabic rather than Persian name. Holden states in his '
History' ? ?a history of the development of Western horoscopic astrology? ? that his works were written in Arabic, so he seems to be directly involved in the Western astrology lineage.
And Lordy! What's the problem with Masha Allah? He's as involved with the development of Western astrology as anyone could hope to be. He was a Jew born in Basra known to us with an Arabic name. Holden writes on page 111 of his 'History': ?Masha'allah was familiar with Persian and Indian astrology ...? . Being simply ?familiar? with Persian astrology indicates that he could hardly be called a Persian astrologer. On page 109 Holden writes: ?Masha'allah was the author of more than two dozen astrological treatises that were considered to be authoritative by both the Arabs and the Western Europeans?. 'Western' in a very meaningful sense of the word!
The pre-Ptolemaic Hellenistic astrologers (and many of the post-Ptolemaic) used the sidereal zodiac with their 'western' concepts and techniques; there is no unwarranted mixing-up involved in continuing to use it.
Can we safely treat pre-Ptolemaic Hellenistic astrology and post-Lilly/Morin Western astrology equally? We have two very different kinds of astrology: An early developing tradition and a late, recovering, well-developed tradition looking back to many other times and places. The learning, experimentation and forward thrust of early astrology seems to be replaced by an uncertainty, anxiety and search for justification in the current age of Western astrology.
But the problem we have in this thread is that the original post was made using one tradition without stating the fact that the tradition used is not the same as the commonly used 'default' tradition of the forum. Or am I mistaken? Maybe the sidereal zodiac used is the only difference and the person who posted uses the full Western system of planetary symbolism rulerships, reception, aspects, etc. It's hard to tell. Did the person who replied realize that the sidereal zodiac was used and that we were possibly heading into a mush of traditions? Free-floating between traditions on the same web site can lead again, alas, to mediocrity.
... while we would not normally consider one of the languages more accurate in describing reality than the other, different astrological systems sometimes do lead to mutually exclusive conclusions.
Exactly. And that is much more important and relevant here than talk of languages.