Combustion
Posted: Tue Dec 21, 2004 3:07 am
I?ve been thinking about the issue of combustion for a while now. Lilly says that for a planet to be combust, it not only has to be within 8? 30' of the Sun, but also within the same sign. This doesn?t make a lot of sense to me. The whole idea of combustion is that the planet has no power to act because it is being overwhelmed by the Sun. It is invisible. This is actually an astronomical occurrence. When a planet is that close to the Sun we cannot see it. This happens whether the two are in the same sign or not. Lilly doesn?t seem to explain why he only considers them combust when in the same sign. But by his definition, if Mercury is at 29? Aries and the Sun is at 1? Taurus, the planet is not combust. But if Mercury is at 21? Aries and the Sun is at 29? Aries then the planet is combust even though in the first situation the Sun and Mercury are much closer. I can see the point that sign boundaries are significant but then why is CA full of chart examples where sign boundaries are ignored? He sometimes uses aspects that are out of sign and even has charts where the Moon is not considered voc if it makes an applying aspect to a planet in the next sign. So why the adherence to sign boundaries in the case of combustion?
I went through some of the texts I have in my library to see if there was a precedent for Lilly?s definition of combustion but was unable to find one. Gadbury, who was a contemporary, follows Lilly. But other than that, all I could find in reference to combustion never mentions sign boundaries. I found references to combustion in Dorotheus(1st century), Firmicus (4th century), Abu ?Ali Al-Khayyat (c. 800), Abu Mashar (c. 820), Ibn Ezra (1148), Bonatti (c. 1282), Dariot (1583), Culpeper(1655), Saunders (1677) and Partridge (1679) and I could find no reference to sign boundaries. I?m not saying there aren?t any, just that I couldn?t find them. I am only going by what I currently have at hand. As much as I would like to own a copy of every traditional astrology book ever written, it?s just not the case. I think Tom does though.
Many of the early modern astrologers mention sign boundaries (e.g. Ivy Jacobson) but they could be following Lilly. I know Lee Lehman has put forward an argument for dismissing sign boundaries and I tend to agree with her. I am not saying that sign boundaries don?t count. It may well be that combustion within sign is different from combustion out of sign, but I am not convinced that out of sign means no combustion.
I went through some of the texts I have in my library to see if there was a precedent for Lilly?s definition of combustion but was unable to find one. Gadbury, who was a contemporary, follows Lilly. But other than that, all I could find in reference to combustion never mentions sign boundaries. I found references to combustion in Dorotheus(1st century), Firmicus (4th century), Abu ?Ali Al-Khayyat (c. 800), Abu Mashar (c. 820), Ibn Ezra (1148), Bonatti (c. 1282), Dariot (1583), Culpeper(1655), Saunders (1677) and Partridge (1679) and I could find no reference to sign boundaries. I?m not saying there aren?t any, just that I couldn?t find them. I am only going by what I currently have at hand. As much as I would like to own a copy of every traditional astrology book ever written, it?s just not the case. I think Tom does though.
Many of the early modern astrologers mention sign boundaries (e.g. Ivy Jacobson) but they could be following Lilly. I know Lee Lehman has put forward an argument for dismissing sign boundaries and I tend to agree with her. I am not saying that sign boundaries don?t count. It may well be that combustion within sign is different from combustion out of sign, but I am not convinced that out of sign means no combustion.